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Tex · 08-21-2007, 05:26 AM

Santos and I have been duking it out over the meaning of D&C 58:43. In the context of serious (read: discipline-worthy) sin, I maintain that the forsaking of sin is a necessary requisite to demonstrate repentance. A person who is under discipline for (as examples) adultery, or child abuse, or embezzlement, or whatever, demonstrates a desire for full fellowship by forsaking his sin permanently--usually demonstrated by fidelity to his repentance over a period of time.

Santos insists that this interpretation MUST then logically be applied more broadly: that it must necessarily mean that if I once lose my temper, repent, and then days/weeks/months/whatever later I lose my temper again, that it means I never really repented. Ditto lust, laziness, or what have you.

I don't think that's the intended application of this scripture. What say you?

08-21-2007, 05:26 AM	#1
Tex Senior Member Join Date: Dec 2006 Posts: 8,596	What does it mean to "confess and forsake" sin? Santos and I have been duking it out over the meaning of D&C 58:43. In the context of serious (read: discipline-worthy) sin, I maintain that the forsaking of sin is a necessary requisite to demonstrate repentance. A person who is under discipline for (as examples) adultery, or child abuse, or embezzlement, or whatever, demonstrates a desire for full fellowship by forsaking his sin permanently--usually demonstrated by fidelity to his repentance over a period of time. Santos insists that this interpretation MUST then logically be applied more broadly: that it must necessarily mean that if I once lose my temper, repent, and then days/weeks/months/whatever later I lose my temper again, that it means I never really repented. Ditto lust, laziness, or what have you. I don't think that's the intended application of this scripture. What say you?