[ChinoCoug]

Originally Posted by Chapel-Hill-Coug

Quoting the KJV directly is the least of the BOM problems. My understanding, from a colleague who studied this carefully, is that the ONLY reasonable conclusion is that he lifted straight from the KJV. I'd have to tap into this guy's research to refresh my memory, but I believe it has to do with the fact that in the *original* bom manuscript, it quotes the KJV EXACTLY, minus 100% of italicized words...no more, no less (then subsequent copies, including the first edition BOM, revised the Isaiah passages slightly from that point). Assuming this is true (the source is a faithful scholar member, fwiw), then cut and paste is the ONLY conclusion here. [It's possible I've gotten parts of the argument wrong here, I'm going off memory. But either way this source told me that there is no other option once you look at the evidence from the orig manu].

Here you go Tex, here's an anti-Mormon argument. Let's see how well your theory answers. Best wishes.