[Archaea]

My question was never about the amendment, and only UtahDan focused upon the logic.

The real reason is sympathy.

Do we have the same sympathy for other disorders?

I know the psychiatric community no longer characterizes gayness as a disorder due to political pressure, but anything which stops a person from being able to function within a male female marriage is a disorder in my book.

I don't know if sympathy is logical or not. Socal is right, the Church has anti-gay tendencies. How can the Church accommodate those tendencies? I don't think it can. I don't think it can accommodate alcoholic tendencies, wife beating tendencies, and many other nonfunctional disorders.

UtahDan is right, the only "reasons" are a contortion of compassion into justification. That is really the only thing happening.