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Originally Posted by Tex
3. Did the New Testament translators violate this principal by borrowing from the Septuagint rather than from the Masoretic Text?
It does seem to be a little disingenuous to me to translate a text, supplant what is actually written with something else, and then claim that the translation is an accurate representation of the original. Does it not?
But I think it's a hard thing to compare their work to Joseph's anyway. Theirs was essentially an academic endeavor; Joseph's was spiritual. Their credentials were of man; Joseph's were of God.
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We're not talking about the NT translators. We're talking about Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John: prophets or scribes commissioned by prophets. They wrote in Greek because the NT was missionary material. And when they had OT quotes they used the the LXX to remain consistent. Reword your question to:
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3. Did the New Testament authors violate this principal by borrowing from the Septuagint rather than from the Masoretic Text?
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and start over.