[jay santos]

Originally Posted by Adam

I honestly don't know how it could have been more clear what the New and Everlasting Covenant is:



I think you are reading out of context. For instance:



does say A man and A woman, but it is "in the new and everlasting covenant" of plural marrage.

The key verse in the whole section is the the following.

Doctrine and Covenants 132:15 Therefore, if a man marry him a
wife in the world, and he marry her not by me nor by my word, and
he covenant with her so long as he is in the world and she with
him, their covenant and marriage are not of force when they are
dead, and when they are out of the world; therefore, they are not
bound by any law when they are out of the world.

Why does it seemingly refer to one man and one woman in the key verse if the new and everlasting covenant = plural marriage not monogamous temple marriage. Why did they perform monogamous temple sealings from the beginning of the temple ceremony to now?

Is it possible a prophet might have even intended one meaning when he entered verse into canon but God influenced the prophet to write it in a way that would be interpreted a different way? Is there something important about canon that may even supercede a prophet's intention? I don't know--honest questions.