[Archaea]

I realize Elder Nelson has already addressed this point years ago, but why do you believe translators use "perfect" in Matthew 5:48?

Do the English translations of this verse confuse you?

quote:ἔσεσθε οὖν ὑμεῖς τέλειοι ὡς ὁ πατὴρ ὑμῶν ὁ οὐράνιος τέλειός ἐστιν

KJV:

quote:Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

NRSV:

quote:Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.

teleois means:

quote:complete (in various applications of labor, growth, mental and moral character, etc.); neuter (as noun, with 3588) completeness