this statement, still published in Bible Dictionary...

[BlueK]

Originally Posted by ChinoCoug

What's the problem with misquoting? When Jesus quoted the scriptures, he quoted the Septuagint, which had incorrect translations from the Hebrew Bible.

Likewise, it's not a big deal when the BofM cites biblical verses in the KJV. Just like the Jews in Jesus' time who used the Septuagint, the KJV is what was used in Joseph Smith's time. That doesn't mean there is no value today in studying other translations based on better source materials than were available to the KJV translators. And as far as the KJV being more doctrinally accurate, I could probably find dozens of verses in the NRSV that fit better with LDS doctrine than their counterpart from the KJV. The baptism for the dead scripture in 1 Cor. 15 being one of them.