Why do you think King James translators interpreted Isaiah Chapter 48

[ChinoCoug]

Originally Posted by Archaea

verse one in this fashion:



But 1 Nephi 20:1 states,



the NRSV verse states:



The Masoretic Text states:



The Masoretic Text doesn't refer to baptism but the waters of Jordan.

Joseph Smith added "waters of baptism" later. It's not in the original manuscript. Perhaps JS read the MT after learning Hebrew.

Some of the BOM matches the Dead Sea Scrolls instead of the KJV. But some repeats the KJV's errors.