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Old 11-12-2009, 04:32 PM   #35
Archaea
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tex View Post
That's just nonsense.



It's not an insult. I'm not accusing you of being a natural man. Rather, the scripture illustrates that things of the Spirit are understood by the Spirit. There are concepts of the gospel that cannot be clinically dissected. I realize that might be hard for you to accept, but it's the way the gospel works.
The purpose of scripture is manifold, but if one endeavors to prooftext, by saying, the scriptures say "joy" means X, and the scripture are God's word, and are perfect, so any disagreement is not worthy of discussion, then it's a useless exercise.

OTOH, if you use the scriptural reference as a jumping off point from which to initiate description, so that you can say, "here's where the scripture describe X", and then extrapolate in your own words, that could be useful.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Tex View Post

I don't know what you want from me. You want to hear my speak my mind? Do a search on my username. There's plenty there.

By the way, I don't know how any of this ties back into the topic of whether or not a man engaging in homosexual behavior can experience godly joy. The last several posts have really been a useless tangent.
I wanted you to define joy in your own words, not in the words of the scripture, which are nebulous, feel good descriptions, that persons of common experience can sometimes divine a common meaning.

If you limit your definition of "joy" to the feelings one experienced while being exalted in the celestial kingdom, then gays might fail to experience that. That is beyond my knowledge and experience. If you grant "joy" may encompass feelings less than exaltation, then I'd disagree. You are defining "joy" out of existence into a very limited context.
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Last edited by Archaea; 11-12-2009 at 05:01 PM.
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