06-09-2008, 09:16 PM | #1 |
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AA, Solon, Pelagius and SEIQ or others
I realize Elder Nelson has already addressed this point years ago, but why do you believe translators use "perfect" in Matthew 5:48?
Do the English translations of this verse confuse you? quote:ἔσεσθε οὖν ὑμεῖς τέλειοι ὡς ὁ πατὴρ ὑμῶν ὁ οὐράνιος τέλειός ἐστινKJV: quote:Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.NRSV: quote:Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.teleois means: quote:complete (in various applications of labor, growth, mental and moral character, etc.); neuter (as noun, with 3588) completeness
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06-09-2008, 09:32 PM | #2 | |
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Quote:
Not a direct answer but my favorite approach to the Sermon on the Mount (the article does deal with Matt 5:48 but I don't want to split it from the context of the entire article) is the following: Stassen, Glen H., 2003, The Fourteen Triads of the Sermon on the Mount, Journal of Biblical Literature, 267-308. Here is a link: http://www.fullerseminary.net/sot/fa...n/14Triads.htm Also here is how I incorporated the article into a lesson I did on the Sermon on the Mount: http://ss.diether.org/notes/NT/09-matthew.pdf |
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06-09-2008, 09:39 PM | #3 |
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Also, here is a summary with my own personal spin that I did for the quarterly family newsletter.
http://ss.diether.org/notes/NT/som.pdf |
06-09-2008, 10:01 PM | #4 | |
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I like these comments:
Quote:
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06-09-2008, 10:04 PM | #5 | |
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Quote:
I suppose 'perfect' works better in English than 'complete,' but that's definitely debatable.
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06-09-2008, 11:40 PM | #6 |
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"Perfect" comes from the latin perficere, "to do completely, to finish, to complete." The idea that "perfect" means "flawless" is a later expansion of the idea that something is finished.
Translators apparently use the word "perfect" with its archaic meaning in mind.
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