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Old 06-09-2008, 03:02 PM   #31
Cali Coug
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Tex View Post
You can't be seriously arguing this, are you? Really?



Wrong. I have the entire Restoration.
Isn't the restoration a point supporting our position? How long did it take for the restoration to occur?
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Old 06-09-2008, 03:03 PM   #32
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Originally Posted by MikeWaters View Post
Well, that is the same argument that protestant Christians make about the Bible.

Another argument might say that it is because of our wickedness that we do not receive more revelation.
Good points. I'll add that the "wickdness leads to less (or a stoppage of) revelation" assertion isn't born out in the scriptures. It is during times of extreme wickedness, say, for example, just before Jerusalem is sacked by the Babylonians, that you get prophecy in spades: Isaiah, Jeremiah, Lehi and so on.

I should also add, though, that those writings probably would not have been considered authoritative in a major way until much later. I believe the minor prophets were collected and deemed authoritative in the second century BC.
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Last edited by Sleeping in EQ; 06-09-2008 at 03:09 PM.
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Old 06-09-2008, 03:04 PM   #33
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Originally Posted by Sleeping in EQ View Post
Good points. I'll add that the "wickdness leads to less (or a stoppage of) revelation" assertion isn't born out in the scriptures. It is during times of extreme wickedness, say, for example, just before Jerusalem is sacked by the Babylonians, that you get prophecy in spades: Isaiah, Jeremiah, Lehi and so on.
But that could also be because wickedness led to an end of the scriptures (making it harder to record!).
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Old 06-09-2008, 03:08 PM   #34
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But that could also be because wickedness led to an end of the scriptures (making it harder to record!).
I'm thinking along similar lines. I added a few sentences in an edit.
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Old 06-09-2008, 03:31 PM   #35
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Originally Posted by Cali Coug View Post
Isn't the restoration a point supporting our position? How long did it take for the restoration to occur?
Are you even reading Indy's posts?

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I think members of the church still have a voice, they've just been shamed and brow-beaten into not using it because leaders find it inconvenient.
It's almost as though the concept of priesthood authority has been lost on this group.
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Old 06-09-2008, 04:09 PM   #36
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Despite historical precedences, and how well they fit this occurrence, the underlying question is logical and brings into question the Lord's purposes pertaining to the Gospel, assuming that this is in fact the Lord's church.

It seems to me you can break the question down as follows, if you are assuming that the Lord never initiated the ban:

-Did the prophets, prior to the lifting of the ban, ask for guidance on the subject?

-If not, then the persistence of the ban is easily placed on the shoulders of those prophets.

-If so (and it appears there's evidence that this is the case), then the question Tex & Indy seem to be asking seems relevant: Why would the Lord NOT lift the ban?
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Old 06-09-2008, 04:13 PM   #37
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Does the Lord really not want powerpoint slides in sacrament meeting?

Are we talking about a Lord that is approving or disapproving of meeting schedules, curricula, music policies, and that ilk?
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Old 06-09-2008, 04:14 PM   #38
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Does the Lord really not want powerpoint slides in sacrament meeting?

Are we talking about a Lord that is approving or disapproving of meeting schedules, curricula, music policies, and that ilk?
Do you honestly think that is a valid analogy?
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Old 06-09-2008, 04:17 PM   #39
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Do you honestly think that is a valid analogy?
So you agree that the Lord is not involved in many of these official pronouncements that go to every unit in the church from the First Presidency.
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Old 06-09-2008, 04:17 PM   #40
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Spaz View Post
Despite historical precedences, and how well they fit this occurrence, the underlying question is logical and brings into question the Lord's purposes pertaining to the Gospel, assuming that this is in fact the Lord's church.

It seems to me you can break the question down as follows, if you are assuming that the Lord never initiated the ban:

-Did the prophets, prior to the lifting of the ban, ask for guidance on the subject?

-If not, then the persistence of the ban is easily placed on the shoulders of those prophets.

-If so (and it appears there's evidence that this is the case), then the question Tex & Indy seem to be asking seems relevant: Why would the Lord NOT lift the ban?
The evidence that the prophets prior to SWK made a serious effort to reverse the ban is very weak.
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